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Older seperates vs new system
On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 08:25:55 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy"
wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) Alan What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? If the volume is less, then in use you would compensate by turning the wick up a bit and end up with the same volume again. So to compare quality you would still need to equalise the sound levels. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. Alan OK, but that doesn't mean you shouldn't try your best to eliminate variables that impinge directly on test results, particularly really simple ones like setting the volume the same for the two items under test. If, as you say, you are familiar with the sensitivity of tests to small variations in test conditions, then your argument with Stewart sounds, frankly, rather stupid. The argument is clearly about the difference in quality between two items, and you are in essence "I can hear a difference in volume between them". That is bound to wind up anybody who is trying to carry out a reasoned discussion on quality and makes you look like a troll. Are you really that? I somehow don't think that is really the case, but it is how you appear. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com |
Older seperates vs new system
I took my dog out for a walk.
While it was ****ing on Tat Chan's leg, he seemed distracted by: Triffid wrote: I took my dog out for a walk. While it was ****ing on Tat Chan's leg, he seemed distracted by: My next upgrade would be improving the conditions of my listening room. Contraception. It's too late now! ??????????????????????????? Anklebiters are detrimental to the listening experience. -- Despite appearances, it is still legal to put sugar on cornflakes. |
Older seperates vs new system
On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 07:53:59 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy"
wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 07:22:24 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . On Wed, 15 Sep 2004 08:01:07 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . Done, given that the levels are equalised, but you'll need to achieve that in thirty trials for statistical significance. Two out of three won't do! Hiding behind equalisation again, Stew. It is and always has been an essential pre-requisite of any comparison - all good salesman know that.................. Alternatively, you are saying that you can achieve the sound of a $16,000 Mark Levinson 'Reference' DAC just by advancing your volume control a tad. You can't have it both ways. Naturally, I knew you'd chicken out when actually called on your bull****. I can of course tell 20 out of 20 with the *same* DAC in circuit, but the volume boosted by 0.5dB in one case. It doesn't sound *louder*, it just sounds 'better', more dynamic, more detailed etc etc. This ain't rocket science, and it ain't new. The whole point of the notorious MF X-10D 'buffer' was that it boosted the signal by 10%, just enough to make sure that it sounded 'better', but not enough to make the trickery obvious. Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering Were you born boring, or did you have to work really hard at it? I told you that the bet was a plain comparison without equalisation. You are the welsher. Do you want to take that bet or not? Stop lying, you simply said that you could tell the difference between the player and the DAC. I'm not talking about equalisation, I'm talking about the *volume* levels being the same. Any idiot (that would be you in this case) can tell the difference between two items which have different output levels. You're not very bright, are you, Pinkie? IQ=163 at last measurement, but it's all relative. Can we call you '82' for short? I've placed my original question, earlier in this thread, below in quotes. Read this carefully and try not to mouth the words as you are reading them as this can inhibit understanding. ~~~~~~~~~~~ "Forget the cables. You'll no doubt be farting around balancing the output level to +/- 0.1 decibel to make the test impractical. I'll bet you an even £1000 that on my system, playing my music, I can tell the difference between a Technics CD player SL-PG490 alone, and the same player with a Meridian DAC 203 optically connected, in more than 67% instances." ~~~~~~~~~~~ That's simple enough isn't it? What is it that you don't understand? What is confusing you? What I don't understand is why you're so terrified of simply setting the volumes to the same level. Scared to admit that you wasted money on the DAC? Your crude and patronising approach to subtle audio differences, offering a paltry sum of money to take part in an A/B test that masks all but gross differences, is doing the industry a disservice and is as distasteful as snake oil, IMHO. My approach is certainly not crude, it's the same method used by the Subjective Evaluation Group at Harman International (brand names include Mark Levinson, Madrigal and JBL, among others). ABX testing is used because it *reveals* the most subtle differences, which are often concealed by other methods, sighted listening being demonstrably useless for discriminating subtle differences. That's why Harman (and B&W, KEF etc etc) use it every day in product development. Its other great strength is that it demonstrates the nonexistence of *imagined* differences, such as those between cables, so that the development engineer can check if that 'audiophile approved' component really does make an audible difference, or if he just wanted it to. What is 'patronising' is your presumption (with no actual proof) that you really can hear a difference in sound *quality* between your player and your DAC. Since you think that £1,000 is a paltry sum (even though *you* suggested it), let's make it an even £10,000 wager. Oh, and next time you accuse me of lying have the guts to say it to my face and not cowering behind a keyboard. Be happy to, if you'll promise to wear a brown paper bag over it..... -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 08:25:55 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy"
wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) Alan What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? If the volume is less, then in use you would compensate by turning the wick up a bit and end up with the same volume again. So to compare quality you would still need to equalise the sound levels. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. That is *precisely* why level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. One cannot of course discriminate well between two sound sources played simultaneously, unlike a side by side visual presentation, plus of course it's true that our visual sense has significantly more acuity than our aural sense. Given the above, I never fail to be amused by all those 'high enders' who insist that ABX is insensitive, and the only *real* way to discriminate subtle differences is by living with the sound for sevberal days or weeks, changing over the cabling in a leisurely fashion. As you correctly note, if you do that with say a couple of colour prints, you'll completely fail to notice quite serious colour casts. Look at those prints in quick succession in the same light, of course.................. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
"Triffid" wrote in message ... I took my dog out for a walk. While it was ****ing on Smeghead's leg, he seemed distracted by: If you have hands, the ability to use them and a spare moment you could build a kit loudspeaker from the likes of Wilmslow or Falcon, IPL etc and have much better bang for the buck. Once upon a time, that was true. Are you mental? |
Older seperates vs new system
In message , Smeghead
writes "Triffid" wrote in message ... I took my dog out for a walk. While it was ****ing on Smeghead's leg, he seemed distracted by: If you have hands, the ability to use them and a spare moment you could build a kit loudspeaker from the likes of Wilmslow or Falcon, IPL etc and have much better bang for the buck. Once upon a time, that was true. Are you mental? Unfortunately it is probably true. The value-for-money of commercial speakers is much better than it used to be, while buying quality drivers for DIY still costs a lot. One thing is true though. If you make your own cabinet you can produce a much higher quality if you're good at woodwork. The sight of £600 speakers with plebeian black vinyl wrap is horrifying. I wouldn't give them houseroom. -- Chris Morriss |
Older seperates vs new system
In article , Alan Murphy
wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. I can see the above as being a justification for equalising the output levels in order to remove a controllable variable - assuming that the concern is to see if differences of some other kind can be perceived. Assuming that your belief is that you can hear differences which do *not* come from sound level inequalities alone. Please see below as I'd like to clarify your point of view on this.... Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The above seems to me to be a generalised assertion - but I am not sure that it can be shown to always be reliable. I'd presume it would depend upon the circumstances and the manner of any 'difference' which the subjects are being tested for perception. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. To say "masked" here seems to me to be presupposing that any difference was both due to some effect *other* than the level inequality and was then indeed 'masked' rather than being 'removed' by equalising the levels. Again, I'd like to clarify this below... Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. My interest here is not in what you "suspect", but in trying to clarify your views and their implications. To do this I'd like to post a series of questions and I'd be interested in your answers. Apologies if what follows is not clearly expressed... Firstly, am I correct in understanding that you are saying that you would be willing to do a comparision test if there were no attempt to correct for measureble level differences, but would not be willing to take such a test if the levels were equalised beforehand? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is this because you are confident you can hear a difference when the levels are different, but not when they have been equalised? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is it your belief that the anticipated inability to perceive a difference is somehow "masked" (using your term) by level equalisation? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes, the next question is: What test do you suggest that can be carried out to distinguish between the hypothesis that the failure to discriminate when the levels are equalised is due to "masking" rather than the anternative hypothesis that the only audible distinction was simply due to a difference in level? i.e. that the difference percieved was solely due to a level difference. If you cannot suggest a performable test that could falsify one hypothesis and support the other, how can you regard the hypothesis that the level equalisation "masks" rather than simple "removes" the difference as being scientifically or academically supportable? So far as I am concerned, the above questions assume you could arrange the protocol to chose lengths and pattern of sampling "A"/"B"/"X" as you would feel most reasonable. So - for example - if you'd personally prefer each "A", etc, to be half an hour, or twenty seconds, this can be assumed to be as you prefer. As a separate point, I would also be curious about your view on how significant a difference may be if it becomes un-detectable when the levels are equalised and each player was giving the desired loudness which you might prefer (without knowing which player was in use). As someone who used to design equipment I can appreciate there are times when even tiny effects may be worth persuing. However when in normal use, given all the other uncontrolled variables of domestic listening, it does seem to me that many of the 'differences' people debate may be of doubtful concern when simply listening to and enjoying music. Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
"Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message
... On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 07:53:59 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 07:22:24 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . On Wed, 15 Sep 2004 08:01:07 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . Done, given that the levels are equalised, but you'll need to achieve that in thirty trials for statistical significance. Two out of three won't do! Hiding behind equalisation again, Stew. It is and always has been an essential pre-requisite of any comparison - all good salesman know that.................. Alternatively, you are saying that you can achieve the sound of a $16,000 Mark Levinson 'Reference' DAC just by advancing your volume control a tad. You can't have it both ways. Naturally, I knew you'd chicken out when actually called on your bull****. I can of course tell 20 out of 20 with the *same* DAC in circuit, but the volume boosted by 0.5dB in one case. It doesn't sound *louder*, it just sounds 'better', more dynamic, more detailed etc etc. This ain't rocket science, and it ain't new. The whole point of the notorious MF X-10D 'buffer' was that it boosted the signal by 10%, just enough to make sure that it sounded 'better', but not enough to make the trickery obvious. Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering Were you born boring, or did you have to work really hard at it? I told you that the bet was a plain comparison without equalisation. You are the welsher. Do you want to take that bet or not? Stop lying, you simply said that you could tell the difference between the player and the DAC. I'm not talking about equalisation, I'm talking about the *volume* levels being the same. Any idiot (that would be you in this case) can tell the difference between two items which have different output levels. You're not very bright, are you, Pinkie? IQ=163 at last measurement, but it's all relative. Can we call you '82' for short? Another spurious test method. Assuming IQ tests are an accurate predictor of intelligence is usually an indication of low intelligence. I've placed my original question, earlier in this thread, below in quotes. Read this carefully and try not to mouth the words as you are reading them as this can inhibit understanding. ~~~~~~~~~~~ "Forget the cables. You'll no doubt be farting around balancing the output level to +/- 0.1 decibel to make the test impractical. I'll bet you an even £1000 that on my system, playing my music, I can tell the difference between a Technics CD player SL-PG490 alone, and the same player with a Meridian DAC 203 optically connected, in more than 67% instances." ~~~~~~~~~~~ That's simple enough isn't it? What is it that you don't understand? What is confusing you? What I don't understand is why you're so terrified of simply setting the volumes to the same level. Scared to admit that you wasted money on the DAC? Your crude and patronising approach to subtle audio differences, offering a paltry sum of money to take part in an A/B test that masks all but gross differences, is doing the industry a disservice and is as distasteful as snake oil, IMHO. My approach is certainly not crude, it's the same method used by the Subjective Evaluation Group at Harman International (brand names include Mark Levinson, Madrigal and JBL, among others). ABX testing is used because it *reveals* the most subtle differences, which are often concealed by other methods, sighted listening being demonstrably useless for discriminating subtle differences. That's why Harman (and B&W, KEF etc etc) use it every day in product development. Its other great strength is that it demonstrates the nonexistence of *imagined* differences, such as those between cables, so that the development engineer can check if that 'audiophile approved' component really does make an audible difference, or if he just wanted it to. What is 'patronising' is your presumption (with no actual proof) that you really can hear a difference in sound *quality* between your player and your DAC. Since you think that £1,000 is a paltry sum (even though *you* suggested it), let's make it an even £10,000 wager. You've read the small print and are in complete agreement? Let me know when you've remortgaged the house and I can arrange escrow. Oh, and next time you accuse me of lying have the guts to say it to my face and not cowering behind a keyboard. Be happy to, if you'll promise to wear a brown paper bag over it..... -- Sadly I have to agree with you on this one :-) Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering Alan | Music is Art - Engineering is Boring |
Older seperates vs new system
Jim and Don, apologies, but I am involved in golf competitions all weekend, not to mention the Ryder Cup on telly, Europe are leading 11-5 :-),and cannot give your questions the attention they deserve. I'll get back asap. Alan "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message ... In article , Alan Murphy wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. I can see the above as being a justification for equalising the output levels in order to remove a controllable variable - assuming that the concern is to see if differences of some other kind can be perceived. Assuming that your belief is that you can hear differences which do *not* come from sound level inequalities alone. Please see below as I'd like to clarify your point of view on this.... Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The above seems to me to be a generalised assertion - but I am not sure that it can be shown to always be reliable. I'd presume it would depend upon the circumstances and the manner of any 'difference' which the subjects are being tested for perception. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. To say "masked" here seems to me to be presupposing that any difference was both due to some effect *other* than the level inequality and was then indeed 'masked' rather than being 'removed' by equalising the levels. Again, I'd like to clarify this below... Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. My interest here is not in what you "suspect", but in trying to clarify your views and their implications. To do this I'd like to post a series of questions and I'd be interested in your answers. Apologies if what follows is not clearly expressed... Firstly, am I correct in understanding that you are saying that you would be willing to do a comparision test if there were no attempt to correct for measureble level differences, but would not be willing to take such a test if the levels were equalised beforehand? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is this because you are confident you can hear a difference when the levels are different, but not when they have been equalised? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is it your belief that the anticipated inability to perceive a difference is somehow "masked" (using your term) by level equalisation? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes, the next question is: What test do you suggest that can be carried out to distinguish between the hypothesis that the failure to discriminate when the levels are equalised is due to "masking" rather than the anternative hypothesis that the only audible distinction was simply due to a difference in level? i.e. that the difference percieved was solely due to a level difference. If you cannot suggest a performable test that could falsify one hypothesis and support the other, how can you regard the hypothesis that the level equalisation "masks" rather than simple "removes" the difference as being scientifically or academically supportable? So far as I am concerned, the above questions assume you could arrange the protocol to chose lengths and pattern of sampling "A"/"B"/"X" as you would feel most reasonable. So - for example - if you'd personally prefer each "A", etc, to be half an hour, or twenty seconds, this can be assumed to be as you prefer. As a separate point, I would also be curious about your view on how significant a difference may be if it becomes un-detectable when the levels are equalised and each player was giving the desired loudness which you might prefer (without knowing which player was in use). As someone who used to design equipment I can appreciate there are times when even tiny effects may be worth persuing. However when in normal use, given all the other uncontrolled variables of domestic listening, it does seem to me that many of the 'differences' people debate may be of doubtful concern when simply listening to and enjoying music. Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
On Sat, 18 Sep 2004 15:39:18 +0100, Kurt Hamster
wrote: On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 16:27:09 +0000 (UTC), Stewart Pinkerton used to say... On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 07:53:59 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Oh, and next time you accuse me of lying have the guts to say it to my face and not cowering behind a keyboard. Be happy to, if you'll promise to wear a brown paper bag over it..... Wouldn't that make the keys harder to press? His face has keys? -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
On Sun, 19 Sep 2004 07:45:08 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy"
wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message .. . On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 07:53:59 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: I'll bet you an even £1000 that on my system, playing my music, I can tell the difference between a Technics CD player SL-PG490 alone, and the same player with a Meridian DAC 203 optically connected, in more than 67% instances." ~~~~~~~~~~~ That's simple enough isn't it? What is it that you don't understand? What is confusing you? What I don't understand is why you're so terrified of simply setting the volumes to the same level. Scared to admit that you wasted money on the DAC? Your crude and patronising approach to subtle audio differences, offering a paltry sum of money to take part in an A/B test that masks all but gross differences, is doing the industry a disservice and is as distasteful as snake oil, IMHO. My approach is certainly not crude, it's the same method used by the Subjective Evaluation Group at Harman International (brand names include Mark Levinson, Madrigal and JBL, among others). ABX testing is used because it *reveals* the most subtle differences, which are often concealed by other methods, sighted listening being demonstrably useless for discriminating subtle differences. That's why Harman (and B&W, KEF etc etc) use it every day in product development. Its other great strength is that it demonstrates the nonexistence of *imagined* differences, such as those between cables, so that the development engineer can check if that 'audiophile approved' component really does make an audible difference, or if he just wanted it to. What is 'patronising' is your presumption (with no actual proof) that you really can hear a difference in sound *quality* between your player and your DAC. Since you think that £1,000 is a paltry sum (even though *you* suggested it), let's make it an even £10,000 wager. You've read the small print and are in complete agreement? What 'small print'? Levels are equalised to +/- 0.1dB, the test protocol is double-blind, and you need to score more than 20 correct out of 30 trials. That's it. Unless of course you're thinking of something fundamentally underhand, like turning the volume *way* up and just listening to the noise floors. That would of course be cynical and pointless, and no cigar. Another clown tried that game once, with amplifiers. If you think you can tell a difference in sound quality on music, then that's just fine, you can choose any partnering gear and any music you like, as you stated in your original challemge at the top of this post. All I ask is an *honest* comparison, as always. Let me know when you've remortgaged the house and I can arrange escrow. Cash available whenever you need the only glimpse of it you'll ever get, and when you've ponied up your end. Care to suggest a neutral test proctor? -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
On Sun, 19 Sep 2004 11:34:38 +0000 (UTC), Stewart Pinkerton
wrote: On Sun, 19 Sep 2004 07:45:08 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message . .. On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 07:53:59 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: I'll bet you an even £1000 that on my system, playing my music, I can tell the difference between a Technics CD player SL-PG490 alone, and the same player with a Meridian DAC 203 optically connected, in more than 67% instances." ~~~~~~~~~~~ That's simple enough isn't it? What is it that you don't understand? What is confusing you? What I don't understand is why you're so terrified of simply setting the volumes to the same level. Scared to admit that you wasted money on the DAC? Your crude and patronising approach to subtle audio differences, offering a paltry sum of money to take part in an A/B test that masks all but gross differences, is doing the industry a disservice and is as distasteful as snake oil, IMHO. My approach is certainly not crude, it's the same method used by the Subjective Evaluation Group at Harman International (brand names include Mark Levinson, Madrigal and JBL, among others). ABX testing is used because it *reveals* the most subtle differences, which are often concealed by other methods, sighted listening being demonstrably useless for discriminating subtle differences. That's why Harman (and B&W, KEF etc etc) use it every day in product development. Its other great strength is that it demonstrates the nonexistence of *imagined* differences, such as those between cables, so that the development engineer can check if that 'audiophile approved' component really does make an audible difference, or if he just wanted it to. What is 'patronising' is your presumption (with no actual proof) that you really can hear a difference in sound *quality* between your player and your DAC. Since you think that £1,000 is a paltry sum (even though *you* suggested it), let's make it an even £10,000 wager. You've read the small print and are in complete agreement? What 'small print'? Levels are equalised to +/- 0.1dB, the test protocol is double-blind, and you need to score more than 20 correct out of 30 trials. That's it. For such a small statistical population, 20 out of 30 is extraordinarily generous, especially considering that the subject would be claiming something very close to 100%, particularly if they get to choose the listening material. Although in strict Chi squared terms it is a good score, Sod's law dictates that it can happen quite easily by chance. Having achieved the 20, it should be necessary to do it again to show it wasn't a fluke. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com |
Older seperates vs new system
Don't they still sell the ATC kits?? Yes they do, Much better value than anything from the usual brand names etc IMO. Actually very simple to build, for a paint finish, put them to a car body spray shop to be filled sanded and painted. candy lacquers add amazing depth to paint jobs. Veneering can be tricky to do yourself without a vacuum press but a local cabinet maker would do it for you for a small fee. Stew. |
Older seperates vs new system
In article , Stewart Pinkerton
wrote: ... level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. But typical ABX tests are often not as sensitive as they are thought to be. ABX is an elegant scheme for data collection, but data collection is only part of an experiment. It is the entire experiment's sensitivity that matters. Recall that a test is *sensitive* for a difference if the test is likely to detect that difference when the difference is present; a test is *specific* (i.e., selective) if it is unlikely to report a false positive result (when the difference is not present). Here is an example: If someone does not ever detect a difference, he will still get correct answers on 50% of trials in the long run just by random guessing. If someone always detects a difference, he will of course be able to score 100% correct. Often people take as a threshold the size of difference where someone would get 75% correct answers in an infinite sequence or repeated trials. Consider a difference large enough that a certain listener would get the correct answer for 90% of all trials (well above the 75% threshold). If we did an ABX test with just one trial for that subject, the sensitivity would be .90 but the chance of a false positive would be ..50---way too high. So, we do a test with 16 trials with a passing score if the subject gets at least 14 correct responses. Now the type 1 error risk is small ( .01) but the sensitivity is only .79. In other words, we have made a more specific test, but it is _less_ sensitive that a single-trial test! A difference has to so large that subjects get correct answers on about 95% of individual trials before a 14-of-16 test is as sensitive as a single-trial test. (A 12-of-16 test is less specific, but far more sensitive.) |
Older seperates vs new system
"Jim Lesurf" wrote in message
... In article , Alan Murphy wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. I can see the above as being a justification for equalising the output levels in order to remove a controllable variable - assuming that the concern is to see if differences of some other kind can be perceived. Assuming that your belief is that you can hear differences which do *not* come from sound level inequalities alone. Please see below as I'd like to clarify your point of view on this.... Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The above seems to me to be a generalised assertion - but I am not sure that it can be shown to always be reliable. I'd presume it would depend upon the circumstances and the manner of any 'difference' which the subjects are being tested for perception. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. To say "masked" here seems to me to be presupposing that any difference was both due to some effect *other* than the level inequality and was then indeed 'masked' rather than being 'removed' by equalising the levels. Again, I'd like to clarify this below... Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. My interest here is not in what you "suspect", but in trying to clarify your views and their implications. To do this I'd like to post a series of questions and I'd be interested in your answers. Apologies if what follows is not clearly expressed... Firstly, am I correct in understanding that you are saying that you would be willing to do a comparision test if there were no attempt to correct for measureble level differences, but would not be willing to take such a test if the levels were equalised beforehand? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is this because you are confident you can hear a difference when the levels are different, but not when they have been equalised? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes", the next question is: Is it your belief that the anticipated inability to perceive a difference is somehow "masked" (using your term) by level equalisation? If the answer to the above is essentially "Yes, the next question is: What test do you suggest that can be carried out to distinguish between the hypothesis that the failure to discriminate when the levels are equalised is due to "masking" rather than the anternative hypothesis that the only audible distinction was simply due to a difference in level? i.e. that the difference percieved was solely due to a level difference. If you cannot suggest a performable test that could falsify one hypothesis and support the other, how can you regard the hypothesis that the level equalisation "masks" rather than simple "removes" the difference as being scientifically or academically supportable? So far as I am concerned, the above questions assume you could arrange the protocol to chose lengths and pattern of sampling "A"/"B"/"X" as you would feel most reasonable. So - for example - if you'd personally prefer each "A", etc, to be half an hour, or twenty seconds, this can be assumed to be as you prefer. As a separate point, I would also be curious about your view on how significant a difference may be if it becomes un-detectable when the levels are equalised and each player was giving the desired loudness which you might prefer (without knowing which player was in use). As someone who used to design equipment I can appreciate there are times when even tiny effects may be worth persuing. However when in normal use, given all the other uncontrolled variables of domestic listening, it does seem to me that many of the 'differences' people debate may be of doubtful concern when simply listening to and enjoying music. Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html I think it might be clearer, Jim, if I just outline my views on the subject and hope that you find this acceptable. I agree that, for the results to be meaningful in AB testing, levels should be equalised and regret that my devious attempts to wind up Stewart were misinterpreted. I do feel however that AB testing is possibly not a suitable test for revealing differences close to 1 jnd and is accurate to perhaps 5 jnd. My reasoning is that this is analogous to the case in the visual field where it is possible to view samples both simultaneously and serially but where discrimination is greatly reduced in the case of serial viewing. As you probably know, the specification of small colour differences is of significant commercial importance and international standards and an extensive body of research, both published and unpublished, exists. I published an early computer study on equal visual spacing as long ago as 1977, ("A two-dimensional colour diagram based on the sensitivity functions of cone vision". JOCCA, 1977, 60, 307-310). As for a test to determine whether AB testing is sufficiently sensitive to distinguish small audio differences I would propose the following: It should be possible to determine minimum audible differences of 1 jnd over a discrete range of frequencies on a test setup, say from 1000 to 15000Hz at 2000 Hz intervals. A set of digital AB samples to Red Book CD standard at normal listening levels would then be prepared, one of which would be a pure tone at each of the frequencies and the other would be the same tone corrupted at alternate values by positive then negative random increments of digital noise varying from 0 to 5 jnd. My prediction is that an AB test on these samples would not be able to distinguish differences of less than 5 jnd. Over to you. BTW Europe won the Ryder Cup by a record margin but I am sure that in St Andrews you already knew that :-) Alan. |
Older seperates vs new system
I took my dog out for a walk.
While it was ****ing on The Milkman's leg, he seemed distracted by: "Triffid" wrote: While it was ****ing on Smeghead's leg, he seemed distracted by: If you have hands, the ability to use them and a spare moment you could build a kit loudspeaker from the likes of Wilmslow or Falcon, IPL etc and have much better bang for the buck. Once upon a time, that was true. Don't they still sell the ATC kits?? They do, but I wouldn't trust my woodworking skills to make a decent bird-table let alone a cabinet worthy of something that quality. -- Despite appearances, it is still legal to put sugar on cornflakes. |
Older seperates vs new system
In article , Alan Murphy
wrote: "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message [big snip to avoid repeating my sequence of questions] I think it might be clearer, Jim, if I just outline my views on the subject and hope that you find this acceptable. I'm afraid that your mode of response does not actually seem 'clearer' to me as you have not dealt with the main issue I was specifically asking you about. (Please see below.) I agree that, for the results to be meaningful in AB testing, levels should be equalised and regret that my devious attempts to wind up Stewart were misinterpreted. OK. I do feel however that AB testing is possibly not a suitable test for revealing differences close to 1 jnd and is accurate to perhaps 5 jnd. [snip] I appreciate that you may "feel" something. I also appreciate that you might be correct. However, since you seem to be arguing on the basis of taking an academic approach founded upon applying the scientific method, my questions were to invite you to apply this to your own statements. As for a test to determine whether AB testing is sufficiently sensitive to distinguish small audio differences I would propose the following: It should be possible to determine minimum audible differences of 1 jnd over a discrete range of frequencies on a test setup, say from 1000 to 15000Hz at 2000 Hz intervals. A set of digital AB samples to Red Book CD standard at normal listening levels would then be prepared, one of which would be a pure tone at each of the frequencies and the other would be the same tone corrupted at alternate values by positive then negative random increments of digital noise varying from 0 to 5 jnd. My prediction is that an AB test on these samples would not be able to distinguish differences of less than 5 jnd. Over to you. My series of questions was partly to establish if I had understood you correctly. Partly to establish what test you had in mind that could be carried out and whose results could distinguish between your hypothesis that the failure was due to 'masking' and the alternative hypothesis that the failure was due to 'removal' of the actual differences. Unfortunately, your reply does not deal with this point. I carefully arranged my series of questions so that all but the last could be answered fairly quickly and simply with a 'yes' or a 'no'. I would have preferred this as it seems clearer to me that your restatement. However the key question was the last one (restated above) so I'd like to know your answer to this. Or do you accept that when you argue that the failure is due to 'masking' this is no more than a personal belief? The outline you give from visual experiments is an analogy. This may or may not be an appropriate analogy. To test this we would require a response to the question which you did not deal with. So. Can you now say what practical test/experiment you can suggest that would be useful to test your hypothesis that the failure is due to 'masking' rather than 'removal' of the audible difference? BTW Europe won the Ryder Cup by a record margin but I am sure that in St Andrews you already knew that :-) Heard about it on the radio. :-) However I tend to leave golf to the tourists. ;- Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
"John Corbett" wrote in message ... In article , Stewart Pinkerton wrote: ... level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. But typical ABX tests are often not as sensitive as they are thought to be. ABX is an elegant scheme for data collection, but data collection is only part of an experiment. It is the entire experiment's sensitivity that matters. Recall that a test is *sensitive* for a difference if the test is likely to detect that difference when the difference is present; a test is *specific* (i.e., selective) if it is unlikely to report a false positive result (when the difference is not present). Here is an example: If someone does not ever detect a difference, he will still get correct answers on 50% of trials in the long run just by random guessing. If someone always detects a difference, he will of course be able to score 100% correct. Often people take as a threshold the size of difference where someone would get 75% correct answers in an infinite sequence or repeated trials. Consider a difference large enough that a certain listener would get the correct answer for 90% of all trials (well above the 75% threshold). If we did an ABX test with just one trial for that subject, the sensitivity would be .90 but the chance of a false positive would be .50---way too high. So, we do a test with 16 trials with a passing score if the subject gets at least 14 correct responses. Now the type 1 error risk is small ( .01) but the sensitivity is only .79. In other words, we have made a more specific test, but it is _less_ sensitive that a single-trial test! A difference has to so large that subjects get correct answers on about 95% of individual trials before a 14-of-16 test is as sensitive as a single-trial test. (A 12-of-16 test is less specific, but far more sensitive.) Didn't understand a word of that myself, but I await the response to it with eager anticipation! :-) |
Older seperates vs new system
On Thu, 23 Sep 2004 14:14:11 +0100, "Keith G"
wrote: "John Corbett" wrote in message ... In article , Stewart Pinkerton wrote: ... level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. But typical ABX tests are often not as sensitive as they are thought to be. ABX is an elegant scheme for data collection, but data collection is only part of an experiment. It is the entire experiment's sensitivity that matters. Recall that a test is *sensitive* for a difference if the test is likely to detect that difference when the difference is present; a test is *specific* (i.e., selective) if it is unlikely to report a false positive result (when the difference is not present). Here is an example: If someone does not ever detect a difference, he will still get correct answers on 50% of trials in the long run just by random guessing. If someone always detects a difference, he will of course be able to score 100% correct. Often people take as a threshold the size of difference where someone would get 75% correct answers in an infinite sequence or repeated trials. Consider a difference large enough that a certain listener would get the correct answer for 90% of all trials (well above the 75% threshold). If we did an ABX test with just one trial for that subject, the sensitivity would be .90 but the chance of a false positive would be .50---way too high. So, we do a test with 16 trials with a passing score if the subject gets at least 14 correct responses. Now the type 1 error risk is small ( .01) but the sensitivity is only .79. In other words, we have made a more specific test, but it is _less_ sensitive that a single-trial test! A difference has to so large that subjects get correct answers on about 95% of individual trials before a 14-of-16 test is as sensitive as a single-trial test. (A 12-of-16 test is less specific, but far more sensitive.) Didn't understand a word of that myself, but I await the response to it with eager anticipation! He's quite right statistically, but of course his point is irrelevant, since there's no point in high sensitivity without high confidence - just as in measurement, there's no point in high resolution without high accuracy, viz the myth that 24-bit digital has *any* higher resolution than 16-bit - if you're using analogue tape sources. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
"Jim Lesurf" wrote in message
... In article , Alan Murphy wrote: "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message [big snip to avoid repeating my sequence of questions] I think it might be clearer, Jim, if I just outline my views on the subject and hope that you find this acceptable. I'm afraid that your mode of response does not actually seem 'clearer' to me as you have not dealt with the main issue I was specifically asking you about. (Please see below.) I agree that, for the results to be meaningful in AB testing, levels should be equalised and regret that my devious attempts to wind up Stewart were misinterpreted. OK. I do feel however that AB testing is possibly not a suitable test for revealing differences close to 1 jnd and is accurate to perhaps 5 jnd. [snip] I appreciate that you may "feel" something. I also appreciate that you might be correct. However, since you seem to be arguing on the basis of taking an academic approach founded upon applying the scientific method, my questions were to invite you to apply this to your own statements. As for a test to determine whether AB testing is sufficiently sensitive to distinguish small audio differences I would propose the following: It should be possible to determine minimum audible differences of 1 jnd over a discrete range of frequencies on a test setup, say from 1000 to 15000Hz at 2000 Hz intervals. A set of digital AB samples to Red Book CD standard at normal listening levels would then be prepared, one of which would be a pure tone at each of the frequencies and the other would be the same tone corrupted at alternate values by positive then negative random increments of digital noise varying from 0 to 5 jnd. My prediction is that an AB test on these samples would not be able to distinguish differences of less than 5 jnd. Over to you. My series of questions was partly to establish if I had understood you correctly. Partly to establish what test you had in mind that could be carried out and whose results could distinguish between your hypothesis that the failure was due to 'masking' and the alternative hypothesis that the failure was due to 'removal' of the actual differences. Unfortunately, your reply does not deal with this point. I carefully arranged my series of questions so that all but the last could be answered fairly quickly and simply with a 'yes' or a 'no'. I would have preferred this as it seems clearer to me that your restatement. However the key question was the last one (restated above) so I'd like to know your answer to this. Or do you accept that when you argue that the failure is due to 'masking' this is no more than a personal belief? The outline you give from visual experiments is an analogy. This may or may not be an appropriate analogy. To test this we would require a response to the question which you did not deal with. So. Can you now say what practical test/experiment you can suggest that would be useful to test your hypothesis that the failure is due to 'masking' rather than 'removal' of the audible difference? When I wrote the original post with the term 'masking' I was not aware that it has a particular meaning and significance in audio science, not being familiar with the literature. Having read some relevant papers I now realise that I should have replaced 'masking' with 'the test is not sufficiently sensitive to reveal differences which may be present when using some other method'. My apologies for not being sufficiently clear. The test that I proposed above would indeed reveal whether the AB test is insensitive and to what degree, concordant with the scientific method. I do not have enough knowledge of the subject to propose a test that would detect low jnd differences in complex scenarios. Incidentally during my "googling" I did notice some suggestion that when different signals are presented simultaneously to seperate ears much smaller differences can be detected than when these signals are presented to both ears serially. Any ideas on this? Alan. [snip of idle golf chatter :-)] Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
In article , Alan Murphy
wrote: "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message [big snip] So. Can you now say what practical test/experiment you can suggest that would be useful to test your hypothesis that the failure is due to 'masking' rather than 'removal' of the audible difference? When I wrote the original post with the term 'masking' I was not aware that it has a particular meaning and significance in audio science, not being familiar with the literature. Having read some relevant papers I now realise that I should have replaced 'masking' with 'the test is not sufficiently sensitive to reveal differences which may be present when using some other method'. My apologies for not being sufficiently clear. Well, that moves the goal-posts a bit. :-) But I don't think that it deals with the real issue I was asking about. I will try to clarify further using your restatement as a basis. Hypothesis 1: Once the levels are equalised the test is not sufficiently sensitive to reveal differences which may be present when using some other method. Hypothesis 2: Once the levels are equalised there are no perceivable differences. What test would allow us to discriminate between these two hypotheses? In one case you draw a conclusion about the test. In the other about perception. For these to be distinct proposals we have to try and do an experiment whose observed results could support one hypothesis and not the other. If we are unable to determine a real test that could distinguish between them, then in what way are the two hypothesis different? The test that I proposed above would indeed reveal whether the AB test is insensitive and to what degree, concordant with the scientific method. Sorry, I'm afraid I am not sure which test you are referring to here. Nor therefore how it shows that - for the situation with audio and equalised levels - it allows you to state "the test is insensitive" as opposed to "any other differences than level are imperceptable". I do not have enough knowledge of the subject to propose a test that would detect low jnd differences in complex scenarios. This, of course, makes it difficult to test the distinction between hypotheses (1) and (2). But then, we can proceed according to the usual scientific method.... The problems here can be expressed in two ways. One is the 'Spock rule'. A difference which makes no difference *is* no difference. i.e. that if when we equalise the levels we can't percieve any difference, then in practice there is no difference so far as human perception is concerned. The other is the normal scientific method of avoiding adding in mechanisms which are not needed to explain the observations. This implies that if we can't hear a difference, then we can conclude that any difference is so small as to be imperceptable *unless* we can devise a test suitable for the situation that might falsify this assumption. In essence, Occam's Razor. So I'd still be interested in seeing what experiment would allow us to test you (modified) hypothesis (1) against (2). If we can't, we can presumably assume that a percieved difference that vanishes when the levels are equalised was due simply due to the difference in levels, and avoid adding in other mechanisms. As I understand it, this is the normal scientific method. Does the above not seem reasonable to you? Incidentally during my "googling" I did notice some suggestion that when different signals are presented simultaneously to seperate ears much smaller differences can be detected than when these signals are presented to both ears serially. Any ideas on this? Afraid I don't know. Although I would guess that it may be because symultaneous signals can be compared 'directly' by the brain whereas when presented serially this has to be a comparison between a current signal and a 'memory'. (Even if the memory is an effect at a physiological level, or at least below conscious memory.) I have read about various types of experiments that indicate our perception of things like dissonance depends upon both signals being present in the same ear (or not). I'd assume that in part these things are due to indvidual nonlinearities in each ear, and in part due to the ways the signals are combined in the brain to give us spatial perception. But apart from these generalisations, I dunno. :-) Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
[huge snip of anal material]
Jim, you've got your head totally up your arse about equalistion. This was a total red herring. Alan. "You're still my favourite contributor on any ng" :-) |
Older seperates vs new system
In article , Alan Murphy
wrote: [huge snip of anal material] Jim, you've got your head totally up your arse about equalistion. Actually, all I was trying to do was see if your views were of any value, and hence worth taking seriously. This was a total red herring. From what you now write I take it the answer is, "No", and that you accept that the ideas you were putting forwards are not really worth considering. OK. Alan. "You're still my favourite contributor on any ng" :-) Funny way of showing it. If you like someone I'd expect you to be polite and considerate towards them. Not evade their questions and then duck out with a "head up arse" comment. Slainte, Jim -- Electronics http://www.st-and.ac.uk/~www_pa/Scot...o/electron.htm Audio Misc http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/AudioMisc/index.html Armstrong Audio http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/Audio/armstrong.html Barbirolli Soc. http://www.st-and.demon.co.uk/JBSoc/JBSoc.html |
Older seperates vs new system
"Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message ... On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 08:25:55 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) Alan What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? If the volume is less, then in use you would compensate by turning the wick up a bit and end up with the same volume again. So to compare quality you would still need to equalise the sound levels. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. That is *precisely* why level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. One cannot of course discriminate well between two sound sources played simultaneously, unlike a side by side visual presentation, plus of course it's true that our visual sense has significantly more acuity than our aural sense. Given the above, I never fail to be amused by all those 'high enders' who insist that ABX is insensitive, and the only *real* way to discriminate subtle differences is by living with the sound for sevberal days or weeks, changing over the cabling in a leisurely fashion. As you correctly note, if you do that with say a couple of colour prints, you'll completely fail to notice quite serious colour casts. Look at those prints in quick succession in the same light, of course.................. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering Why if the visual sense is more cute than the aural can we get away with greater levels of video compression than Audio compression before we begin to notice the quality suffering? Why is the eye so much easier to trick? |
Older seperates vs new system
"Alan Murphy" wrote in message ... "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message ... In article , Alan Murphy wrote: "Jim Lesurf" wrote in message [big snip to avoid repeating my sequence of questions] I think it might be clearer, Jim, if I just outline my views on the subject and hope that you find this acceptable. I'm afraid that your mode of response does not actually seem 'clearer' to me as you have not dealt with the main issue I was specifically asking you about. (Please see below.) I agree that, for the results to be meaningful in AB testing, levels should be equalised and regret that my devious attempts to wind up Stewart were misinterpreted. OK. I do feel however that AB testing is possibly not a suitable test for revealing differences close to 1 jnd and is accurate to perhaps 5 jnd. [snip] I appreciate that you may "feel" something. I also appreciate that you might be correct. However, since you seem to be arguing on the basis of taking an academic approach founded upon applying the scientific method, my questions were to invite you to apply this to your own statements. As for a test to determine whether AB testing is sufficiently sensitive to distinguish small audio differences I would propose the following: It should be possible to determine minimum audible differences of 1 jnd over a discrete range of frequencies on a test setup, say from 1000 to 15000Hz at 2000 Hz intervals. A set of digital AB samples to Red Book CD standard at normal listening levels would then be prepared, one of which would be a pure tone at each of the frequencies and the other would be the same tone corrupted at alternate values by positive then negative random increments of digital noise varying from 0 to 5 jnd. My prediction is that an AB test on these samples would not be able to distinguish differences of less than 5 jnd. Over to you. My series of questions was partly to establish if I had understood you correctly. Partly to establish what test you had in mind that could be carried out and whose results could distinguish between your hypothesis that the failure was due to 'masking' and the alternative hypothesis that the failure was due to 'removal' of the actual differences. Unfortunately, your reply does not deal with this point. I carefully arranged my series of questions so that all but the last could be answered fairly quickly and simply with a 'yes' or a 'no'. I would have preferred this as it seems clearer to me that your restatement. However the key question was the last one (restated above) so I'd like to know your answer to this. Or do you accept that when you argue that the failure is due to 'masking' this is no more than a personal belief? The outline you give from visual experiments is an analogy. This may or may not be an appropriate analogy. To test this we would require a response to the question which you did not deal with. So. Can you now say what practical test/experiment you can suggest that would be useful to test your hypothesis that the failure is due to 'masking' rather than 'removal' of the audible difference? When I wrote the original post with the term 'masking' I was not aware that it has a particular meaning and significance in audio science, not being familiar with the literature. Having read some relevant papers I now realise that I should have replaced 'masking' with 'the test is not sufficiently sensitive to reveal differences which may be present when using some other method'. My apologies for not being sufficiently clear. The test that I proposed above would indeed reveal whether the AB test is insensitive and to what degree, concordant with the scientific method. I do not have enough knowledge of the subject to propose a test that would detect low jnd differences in complex scenarios. Incidentally during my "googling" I did notice some suggestion that when different signals are presented simultaneously to seperate ears much smaller differences can be detected than when these signals are presented to both ears serially. Any ideas on this? Alan. One of the main functions of the hearing system is as a comparator, of sorts, in order to judge the orientation of the source of sound. So I would guess the system is particularly sensitive to any differences between whatever is entering the ears at a given moment in time. |
Older seperates vs new system
"The EggKing" wrote in message ... "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message ... On Fri, 17 Sep 2004 08:25:55 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: "Don Pearce" wrote in message ... On Thu, 16 Sep 2004 08:48:58 +0000 (UTC), "Alan Murphy" wrote: Because the DAC is much quieter and I can identify it every time :-) Alan What do you mean by quieter - less background noise or less volume? If the volume is less, then in use you would compensate by turning the wick up a bit and end up with the same volume again. So to compare quality you would still need to equalise the sound levels. d Pearce Consulting http://www.pearce.uk.com Both, but I was just trying to make a point really, Don, about the difficulty of establishing proper procedures when testing sensory descrimination. In the visual field, with which I am familiar, very slight alterations in test procedure, such as seperating contiguous samples by a few mm or so can decrease discrimination of colour difference by an order of magnitude. Presenting the samples, in series, in A/B fashion, further greatly decreases discrimination depending on the time interval between viewings. The differences are still there of course but are masked by the method of testing. Resort to instrumentation is not helpful in judging differences below about 5 - 10 jnd's, depending on position in colour space, due to the acuity of the visual system. I suspect the same holds true for auditory differences. That is *precisely* why level-matched time-proximate ABX (and ABChr) testing has proven over many decades to be the *most* sensitive test for audible differences in sound quality. One cannot of course discriminate well between two sound sources played simultaneously, unlike a side by side visual presentation, plus of course it's true that our visual sense has significantly more acuity than our aural sense. Given the above, I never fail to be amused by all those 'high enders' who insist that ABX is insensitive, and the only *real* way to discriminate subtle differences is by living with the sound for sevberal days or weeks, changing over the cabling in a leisurely fashion. As you correctly note, if you do that with say a couple of colour prints, you'll completely fail to notice quite serious colour casts. Look at those prints in quick succession in the same light, of course.................. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering Why if the visual sense is more cute than the aural can we get away with greater levels of video compression than Audio compression before we begin to notice the quality suffering? Why is the eye so much easier to trick? No idea - it's a big subject and I believe you can effect an acceptable animation with as little as 3 frames a second, but what interests me is am I the only one who is noticing the truly crap 'digital' colour in movies these days? Recently viewed films like Master & Commander and Northfork have absolutely *terrible* fake-looking colour whilst Black Narcissus (nearly 60 years old), which I watched a few evenings ago, is a visual feast, even with its 'hand coloured Himalayas'!! Seems to me, that movies (like music) have only got worse in the last so many decades!! (Not to mention the 'cocoa powder' effect on a lot of digital TV pictures also!!!) |
Older seperates vs new system
Keith G wrote:
what interests me is am I the only one who is noticing the truly crap 'digital' colour in movies these days? No idea if its anything digital or otherwise, but whatever they filmed the matrix on was utter garbage - you could see the grain on the film easily. |
Older seperates vs new system
On Thu, 30 Sep 2004 22:26:21 +0100, Ian Molton wrote:
Keith G wrote: what interests me is am I the only one who is noticing the truly crap 'digital' colour in movies these days? No idea if its anything digital or otherwise, but whatever they filmed the matrix on was utter garbage - you could see the grain on the film easily. Probably done on purpose, to give that 'film noir' look. -- Stewart Pinkerton | Music is Art - Audio is Engineering |
Older seperates vs new system
"Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message
On Thu, 30 Sep 2004 22:26:21 +0100, Ian Molton wrote: Keith G wrote: what interests me is am I the only one who is noticing the truly crap 'digital' colour in movies these days? No idea if its anything digital or otherwise, but whatever they filmed the matrix on was utter garbage - you could see the grain on the film easily. Probably done on purpose, to give that 'film noir' look. Agreed. Its not like they didn't have the money or technology for a clearer picture. |
Older seperates vs new system
"Arny Krueger" wrote in message ... "Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message On Thu, 30 Sep 2004 22:26:21 +0100, Ian Molton wrote: Keith G wrote: what interests me is am I the only one who is noticing the truly crap 'digital' colour in movies these days? No idea if its anything digital or otherwise, but whatever they filmed the matrix on was utter garbage - you could see the grain on the film easily. Probably done on purpose, to give that 'film noir' look. Agreed. Its not like they didn't have the money or technology for a clearer picture. I believe the Matrix films have a deliberate green tint to depict 'being inside the Matrix' but, interestingly, filmed only on 35mm it would appear....?? (Too much location work for 70mm I suppose?) My problem is with the predominance of 'hazy blue, dim/dark, nearly monochromatic' pix like: Gothika Northfork Payback ....all of which we have watched lately, in that order. (There are a great number of other flics that are much the same, but which do not come readily to mind.) While the deliberate 'downtoning' of Northfolk depicts well the 'bleakness' of the situation (at the cost of some stunning views of the Montana vastness*), it being sandwiched by the other two, simply simply invokes an 'oh gawd, not another bloody dim, Hollywood 'blue' movie here! It would be easy to take a cheap shot here and suggest that the hazy/grainy/'digitised' modern films (as opposed to the lurid, Technicolour oldies) mirror the modern, mass tastes for digital/ss music over analogue/valve, but I don't think it's as simple as that - I have no problem with grain (or even 'noise') and certainly prefer the use of *good* CGI to the 'wobbly models' we've seen in many older films, but I can't help feeling that 'movie' standards are actually on the decline, like everything else...?? Coming Soon (mebbe tonight) - Gone With The Wind! (Believe it or not I've never seen it - it's going to be very interesting from a colour POV, if nothing else!) 'Audio' relevance in this post? - Easy, the soundtrack in Northfork is quite superb throughout and *must* be heard! :-) *Seeing the bitter, bleak shots of Montana in Northfork prompts me to ask 'how can a nation that once had the utter *balls* to deal with conditions/terrain like that evolve into the nation of loud-mouthed, fat-arsed couch potatoes we see on the box today? (Or is it just 'poor sampling' - I'd like to think so....) |
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