Stewart Pinkerton wrote:
On Mon, 30 May 2005 22:37:17 GMT, "Wally" wrote:


SteveB wrote:


Come off it, I can't see there being any problem with me being able
to hear differences, but you would just say there's no difference.
Perhaps people's hearing is different in ways we can't describe, it
would be unprovable, which is why there's no way of resolving debates
about the existence or not of 'cable sound'.

That's what a double blind test is for. It doesn't matter what he says -
it's purely down to whether you can consistently tell the difference.


Eggzackly!


Again and as usual in this context - read 'in ways we *can't* describe'.
So, I think the summary reply to Steve's post is: 'Possibly'.

Rob