On 2007-05-20, Keith G wrote:

"Trevor Wilson" wrote in message
.. .

"Keith G" wrote
Therefore no amplifier has no 'sound' of its own then?

**Nope. That's not what I said.

It's what it looks like to me - your words (as above): "The ideal
amplifier has no 'sound' of it's own. No amplifier is ideal." - what
conclusion could be possibly drawn from that statement other than all
amplifiers are not ideal and therefore have a 'sound'...??

Logic error, Keith. You can only conclde "no amplifier has no sound
of its own" (i.e. every amplfier has a sound of its own) from three
conditons:

- The ideal amplifier has no sound of its own

- No amplifier is ideal

- All non-idealities in an amplifier create a sound.

You cannot (logically) conclude anything about the sound (or not) of
the non-ideal amplifier from the first two conditions.

The third condition has not been postulated (IIRC). Indeed it isn't true.
There are thresholds for the audibility of non-idealities.

--
John Phillips