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Old October 13th 04, 10:58 AM posted to uk.rec.audio
Keith G
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Posts: 7,388
Default Good amps all sound the same do they?


"Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message
...
On Tue, 12 Oct 2004 18:36:29 +0100, "Keith G"
wrote:

"Stewart Pinkerton" wrote in message
. ..
On Tue, 12 Oct 2004 12:08:16 +0100, "Keith G"
wrote:


I may be wrong, but I don't think it's that simple - I'm awaiting
delivery
of a cheap sub (from the same outfit as the ch*nky amp :-) as I type.
My
speakers go very low but I'm not happy that the amp is delivering the
'.1'
stuff to them, especially as we don't use a centre speaker. I want a sub
just to pull these frequencies off (ie tell the amp there *is* a sub) -
now,
is anybody going to tell me I've got that all screwed up??

If you set the processor to 'no sub', the .1 LFE signal should be fed
to the 'large' speakers. It doesn't matter if you're using a phantom
centre.



Have you had a hard day or summat?


Nope, I simply read your statement to mean that you weren't
*convinced* that your amp was delivering the .1 signal to the fronts,
not that you were concerned about overloading the fronts.



You're the one with comprehension problems, sunshine - read it again, I
think you missed the second word 'that' in the above......